Agency

  1. Common Contingencies include all but the following1
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  2. All exclusive Listing Agreements shall1
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  3. When one party is substituted for another party in a contract, the process is appropriately called a1
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  4. BREACH OF CONTRACT – MATCH1
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  5. Of the following, what is not necessary for a contract to be valid?1
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  6. Buyer Wilson and Seller Smith have a voided sales contract. They have both agreed to disperse the funds, against the suggestions from Broker Bob. Broker Bob should:1
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  7. MATCH: placed on the property by written contract to produce fairness.1
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  8. You order dinner at a fine dining restaurant. What type of ‘contract’ do you have in reference to your actions?1
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  9. A contract shown by the actions of the parties would be a/an?1
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  10. M is a licensed real estate salesperson. M’s written contract with broker G specifies that M is not an employee. In the last year, just less than half of M’s income from real estate transactions came from sales commissions. The remainder was based on an hourly wage paid by G. Using these facts, it is likely that the IRS would classify M as which of the following for federal income tax purposes?1
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  11. Which of the following real estate contracts is a service contract?1
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  12. An _________ contract is written or stated.1
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  13. A contract that has no legal object is considered?1
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  14. If a contract does not set a closing date, which of the following statements is (are) true?1
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  15. On a For Sale by Owner, the owner of the property gives a buyer an option to purchase the property. While the option is in effect, the option is considered?1
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  16. A condition in a contract, which has not yet been met, is a _______________.1
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  17. _____________________ place the nonbreaching party in the same position as if the contract had been fully performed.1
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  18. A salesperson lists a property with a contract that allows for subagency and dual agency. The salesperson is1
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  19. A written listing agreement must have:1
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  20. What is the duty of a listing agent upon receiving several offers on a property they have listed?1
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  21. A counteroffer usually accepts some of the terms of the original offer and changes others. The offer becomes a ______________ when it is accepted and acceptance is communicated.1
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  22. A written and signed real estate contract may be voided1
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  23. A buyer depended on his agent’s information that the property the buyer is considering making an offer on is in a tax area of the lowest taxes in the city. Based on that information, an offer was made. Before the transaction closed the buyer found out the taxes in that area are some of the highest in the state. The buyer may seek to rescind the contract based on1
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  24. In case of breach of contract, the injured party has the right to collect1
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  25. When should a nonbreaching party treat an otherwise minor breach as a material breach?1
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  26. Which of the following would not terminate a listing with a broker?1
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  27. When one contract is replaced by another contract, it is an example of1
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  28. IMPLIED CONTRACT – MATCH1
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  29. An ___________ contract is by actions or evidence. This agreement is neither written nor discussed. It is simply performed.1
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  30. A written agreement between a buyer and seller when the buyer wants to buy and the seller wants to sell is called1
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  31. The practical essentials of a valid contract are:1
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  32. After a particularly challenging transaction finally closes, the client gives the listing agent, Louise, a check for $500 “for all your extra work.”  Which of the following statements is accurate?1
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  33. A _________________ contract is an exchange of promises, which binds both parties.1
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  34. The law that requires contracts in real estate to be in writing is1
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  35. Associate Broker Jane Holmes is a party to which executory contract?1
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  36. How many people make a promise in an option contract and who?1
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  37. A seller can limit the length of time for a buyers contingency to be met with an _______________1
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  38. A salesperson listed a client’s home under an exclusive right to sale contract. Which of the following is true?1
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  39. A listing agreement is an employment contract between an owner and a real estate broker.1
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  40. Every contract must reflect whom the broker represents by a statement1
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  41. A real estate broker is said to earn a commission from a seller when:1
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  42. A principals duties to an agent are all of these except1
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  43. Contracts with a minor are considered?1
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  44. The phrase, “procuring cause” is most important to real estate agents in a1
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  45. An Exclusive Buyer Representation Agreement shall clearly indicate in the body of the document1
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  46. A broker and a seller signed an open listing contract stating that the seller will pay the broker if the broker finds a buyer. This is an example of a1
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  47. Which of the following would cancel a listing agreement?1
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  48. Commissions are always ___________.1
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  49. EXPRESS CONTRACT – MATCH1
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  50. A mentally disabled person that was declared incompetent can’t enter into a contract unless1
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  51. Creates a Voidable Contract – Match1
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  52. An exclusive right to sell contract is considered a unilateral contract and?1
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  53. A broker may execute a contract on behalf of his principal when he is a(an):1
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  54. Of the following, what constitutes an open listing?1
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  55. A seller and an agent have an open listing, what type of agreement is this?1
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Statute of Limitations and Breach of Contracts

  1. When should a nonbreaching party treat an otherwise minor breach as a material breach?1
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  2. When a party commits an anticipatory breach, the nonbreaching party ________.1
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  3. Minor breach occurs when a party renders substantial performance of his or her contractual duties.1
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  4. _____________________ place the nonbreaching party in the same position as if the contract had been fully performed.1
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  5. What is a promisee allowed to do in the event of a total and material breach? is a promisee allowed to do in the event of a total and material breach?1
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  6. This occurs when one or more of the contracting parties perform only a portion of the agreed-upon contractual duties1
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  7. A ___________ happens when one or more of the contracting parties either partially or completely fails to fulfill the contractual obligations.1
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  8. Ways a contract can be discharged onclude all of the following except1
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Stroup v. Conant

Did the district court err in rescinding the lease?

2. Explain your reasoning.

Earnest Money and Escrow Accounts

  1. An earnest money deposit pertaining to a cooperative agreement must be held in escrow1
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  2. Salesperson Betty presented Broker Tom’s seller an offer to purchase the Seller’s real estate. The buyer presented a $1000 check for an earnest money deposit. The seller’s agent should inform Betty that1
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  3. In an effort to persuade a wary Internet auction participant, the perpetrator will propose the use of a third-party escrow service to facilitate the exchange of money and merchandise.1
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  4. An earnest money deposit pertaining to a cooperative agreement must be held in escrow1
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  5. What is the minimum number of parties to an escrow?1
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  6. Earnest money deposits should be1
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  7. A broker manages three properties for different owners. One property is in need of emergency repairs, but the owner does not have enough money in the management escrow account to cover the cost of the repairs. The broker uses excess funds from another owner’s account for the emergency, then replaces the funds later with a check from the first owner. Which of the following is true?1
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  8. The closing agent must provide a form 1099-S to the seller of a residence at closing:1
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  9. When a seller makes a counter offer to a purchaser, the earnest money check is:1
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  10. What is a client level duty relating to account of earnest money, actions, etc.1
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  11. A broker has deposited $100 of her personal funds in her escrow account to cover monthly bank servicing fees. Which of the following statements is(are) true of this situation?1
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  12. When a seller makes a counter offer to a purchaser, the earnest money check is:1
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  13. It is most important to follow the accounting procedures for escrow accounts that are established by1
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  14. The closing attorney or escrow agent must report the details of the closing on?1
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  15. John and Mary, both consumers, entered into a transaction to purchase a residential home. The broker is holding the earnest money. Mary, the intended buyer, backed out of the transaction due to defects that were uncovered during the home inspection. Mary wants her earnest money back and has asked the broker to write her a check for the funds immediately so that she can move on to another property. John is disputing the return of the earnest money. In this situation, the broker1
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  16. Monies received in a trust account on behalf of clients or customers are not assets of the broker; however, a broker may deposit and keep in each escrow account or rental account some personal funds for the express purpose1
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  17. Earnest money accepted by the broker or any licensee for which the broker is responsible and upon acceptance of a mutually agreeable contract is required to deposit the money1
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  18. Today is April 1. Salesperson Rebecca has just received investor Teresa’s earnest money check dated April 7th . Furthermore, the check is made payable to Bob Wilson, Attorney Trust Account. Which of the following is the best wording to include in the Contract to Purchase and Sell Real Estate?1
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  19. What is a Bill of Sale?1
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  20. It is the escrow agent’s job to determine1
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  21. Before the close of escrow, who most likely will order the survey?1
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  22. It is acceptable to pay the broker commission or any part of it before the closing of escrow under which of the following conditions?1
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  23. Preparing documents or escrow provisions that go beyond the customary duties of an escrow officer1
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  24. An escrow agent has the responsibility to review the following with the parties involved in a real estate transaction1
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  25. An escrow is an arrangement that:1
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  26. Earnest money deposits should be1
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  27. Salesperson Betty presented Broker Tom’s seller an offer to purchase the Seller’s real estate. The buyer presented a $1000 check for an earnest money deposit. The seller’s agent should inform Betty that1
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  28. An escrow account is sometimes called an impound account. escrow account is sometimes called an impound account.1
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  29. Earnest money deposits should be1
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  30. A buyer made an offer on a property and refused to present an earnest money deposit1
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  31. Broker Dean employs Martha as his bookkeeper. Martha is responsible for maintaining the brokerage’s accounting ledgers. She also prepares and signs all checks disbursed from Dean’s escrow and operating accounts. Which of the following statements is true of this situation?1
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  32. A salesperson finds a buyer for a home he has listed. The buyer gives the salesperson an earnest money cashier’s check for $2,000. What should the salesperson do with the check?1
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  33. Which of the following statements is (are) true of a buyer’s earnest money deposit?1
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  34. When is it necessary to have closing documents recorded prior to disbursement of escrow funds?1
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  35. The illegal practice of mixing a buyer’s, seller’s, tenant’s, or landlord’s funds with the broker’s own money or of mixing real estate brokerage escrow money with the broker’s personal or business funds.1
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IREBEA and the Beneficiaries

  1. “IREBEA” means Interest on Real Estate Broker Escrow Accounts1
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  2. Millard Fuller’s life-long mission was to1
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  3. All of the following are included in the principles for Habitat for Humanity except?1
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  4. IREBEA (Interest on Real Estate Broker’s Escrow Accounts) are1
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  5. Earnings on the IREBEA accounts may be made available to or utilized by a broker.1
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  6. All of the following are included in the principles for Habitat for Humanity except?1
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  7. Participation in IREBEA is accomplished by1
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  8. IREBEA (Interest on Real Estate Broker’s Escrow Accounts) is1
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  9. “Interest earnings” means the total interest earnings generated by the IREBEA at each individual financial institution.1
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  10. The IREBEA program shall be a mandatory program based upon willing participation by real estate brokers, whether proprietorships, partnerships or professional corporations.1
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  11. In June 2009, both branches of the United States Congress, the House of Representatives and the Senate, passed resolutions to honor Fuller.1
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  12. Participation in IREBEA is accomplished by1
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  13. The interest in a IREBEA account for nominal or short term deposits shall be made quarterly to1
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  14. In identifying the Fuller Center for Housing, which of the following is true??1
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  15. Did former president Jimmy Carter start the program, Habitat for Humanity.1
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  16. The interest in a IREBEA account for nominal or short term deposits shall be made quarterly to1
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  17. How does the Fuller Center for Housing pick its location to build?1
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  18. “Local affiliate of Habitat for Humanity International, Inc.,” means an independently run 501(c)(3) organization that acts in partnership with and on behalf of Habitat for Humanity International, Inc., to coordinate all aspects of Habitat home building in a specific geographical area.1
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Email Compromise

  1. MATCH: Unwanted, unsolicited email from someone you don’t know.1
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  2. BUSINESS E-MAIL COMPROMISE scam has been estimated to cost around1
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  3. Business E-mail Compromise (BEC)1
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  4. Hackers who use your password and send emails pretending to be you are an example of breaching:1
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  5. Internet Crime Complaint Center1
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  6. BEC is defined as:1
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  7. Schemes in which criminals compromise the e-mail accounts of victims to send fraudulent wire transfer instructions to financial institutions in order to misappropriate funds.1
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  8. Loan applicants used by fraud perpetrators to obtain mortgages, and are used to disguise the true buyer or the true nature of the transaction.1
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  9. Who should file a complaint with the Internet Crime Complaint Center (IC3)?1
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  10. The BEC scam could be carried out by all of the following except.1
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  11. Financial Fraud Kill Chain1
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  12. What To Do When You’ve Been Hacked1
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  13. They often use familiar company names or pretend to be someone you know. They pressure you to act now – or something bad will happen.1
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  14. IC3 Stands for:1
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  15. Once a complaint has been filed with the IC3, it can be canceled.1
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  16. When someone uses fake emails or texts – even phone calls – to get you to share valuable personal information, like account numbers, Social Security numbers, or your login IDs and passwords.1
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  17. The victims of the BEC scam1
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  18. The IC3’s ability to process your complaint will be based upon which of the following?1
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Stealing Money by Nathan Hardwick

  1. The Nathan Hardwick IV trial1
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  2. Hardwick resigned August 18, 2014. The firm filed for bankruptcy 11 months later.1
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  3. “To save the firm,” Morris said, he asked Hardwick to resign and give up his interest, which had expanded to 75 percent.1
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  4. Morris Hardwick Schneider had grown to about 800 employees in 13 states when the escrow account shortfalls came to light in July 2014.1
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  5. Federal prosecutors indicted Hardwick, who’d been the majority owner of the now-defunct firm, in February 2016, alleging that he stole millions of dollars from client escrow accounts and spent almost $18 million on charter jets, casinos, bookies and women alone.1
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  6. A federal jury has rejected Atlanta lawyer Nathan Hardwick IV’s defense that the _______ he took from his now-bankrupt, residential real estate closing firm, Morris Hardwick Schneider, were funds he thought legitimately due to him as the majority owner.1
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  7. Hardwick’s defense was that he thought he was taking money that was due him from available cash in the operating accounts when he asked the controller,1
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  8. This Hardwick trial was followed closely, around the country, because it was1
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  9. Nathan Hardwick’s profession was that of a1
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  10. Federal jurors convicted the Atlanta lawyer, Nathan Hardwick IV of1
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  11. Maura did not take responsibility of her crime.1
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  12. “This case is not just about the escrow shortages—but what Nat did to his partners.”1
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What’s New in Residential Real Estate Agency

  1. Commissions of ______________ for home sales once were the norm, now average commissions are dipping closer to __________ (split between the seller’s and buyer’s agents).1
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  2. MATCH: Software that performs automated functions for a user, such as a word processing, spreadsheets, graphics, presentations, and databases—as opposed to operating system (OS) software.1
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  3. Most antitrust complaints regarding MLSs have been based on?1
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  4. Which of the following would not be a good reason to use an iBuyer?1
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  5. The MLS was created in the1
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  6. An _______________ is a real estate investor that uses an automated valuation model and other technology to make cash offers on homes quickly (AVM) and other technology to make cash offers on homes quickly.1
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  7. Charging a work unit with the responsibility for generating a portion of the net income in the general operating budget is known as1
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  8. The Emerging Brokerage Models include all of the following except?1
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  9. Realogy Holdings Company encompass all of the following except?1
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  10. What is an iBuyer?1
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  11. Which of the following statements best describes the company, trelora?1
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  12. The structure of the MLS may prejudice consumers towards a particular business model. Which model is that?1
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  13. For the last 100 plus years, the agent’s value proposition has been>1
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  14. All of the following are reasons that sellers will use an iBuyer Service except1
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  15. When Glass House has an excess of commission paid, they will do?1
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  16. ERA is an acronym for________?1
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  17. While there are plenty of reputable investors out there, make sure you do your research before choosing an iBuyer _________________ scams are common1
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  18. The MLS offers a comprehensive database1
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  19. In a traditional brokerage, commissions are paid and commissions can be1
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  20. Popular brokerage models include all of the following, except?1
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  21. In which country was purplebricks founded?1
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Agency

  1. Peggy, a salesperson for broker Bob listed and sold a property. Before being paid for that executed transaction, Peggy changed responsible brokers. Broker Bob1
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  2. Most antitrust complaints regarding MLSs have been based on?1
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  3. It is unlawful to carry out the business of a broker or salesperson without1
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  4. MATCH: Fiduciary1
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  5. Brokers who practice disclosed dual agency1
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  6. A fiduciary relationship exists between the listing broker and the seller. The fiduciary ends, however, if the seller:1
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  7. Of the following listings, which one is a broker guaranteed a commission regardless of who sells the property?1
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  8. An agent had an exclusive right to sell listing agreement with a client on a home listed for $100,000. The agent knew that the seller would actually take $92,000 for the house due to the seller being under duress. During an open house, a buyer came to view the property. The potential buyer loved the house but could not afford more than $90,000. The agent encouraged the buyer to submit an offer. The agent also informed the buyer to offer $90k because she knew the seller would accept $92,000. Did the agent violate her agency relationship with the seller?1
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  9. A real estate licensee shall deliver a true and correct copy of any instrument to any party or parties executing the same1
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  10. Dual Agency is not practiced by some brokers because1
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  11. Implied agreement1
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  12. MATCH: Subagent1
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  13. The following people may be excluded from holding a real estate license except1
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  14. When you know you are competing with another Agent for a listing;1
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  15. Many owners have only a vague understanding of real estate terms like exclusive-right-of-sale, exclusive agency, or procuring cause.1
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  16. To what party or parties does the broker owe the fiduciary duty of care?1
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  17. A buyer depended on his agent’s information that the property the buyer is considering making an offer on is in a tax area of the lowest taxes in the city. Based on that information, an offer was made. Before the transaction closed the buyer found out the taxes in that area are some of the highest in the state. The buyer may seek to rescind the contract based on1
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  18. When one contract is replaced by another contract, it is an example of1
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  19. One of the best sources for verifying information about an owner’s correct legal name and a property’s legal description is:1
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  20. A salesperson told a customer that his listing has the best view of the ocean. The customer noticed that the property has a peek a boo view of the ocean. This is an example of1
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  21. A property manager’s duties typically include all of the following except1
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  22. Which of the following statements best explains the meaning of this sentence: “To recover a commission for brokerage services, a broker must be employed as the agent of the seller”?1
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  23. Delivery to a spouse of a transferee1
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  24. Under the law of agency, a real estate broker owes all of the following duties to the principal except:1
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  25. In the event the agency relationship changes between the parties to a real estate transaction, new disclosure forms will be acknowledged by all parties involved.1
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  26. Match: Special agent1
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  27. In dual agency1
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  28. The real estate market is being transformed by the broad adoption of ___________________?1
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  29. Brokers may give legal advice1
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  30. The seller’s broker can fill out the property condition disclosure1
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  31. Any person who willfully and negligently does not deliver the needed disclosures shall be liable1
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  32. Relationship built on trust1
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  33. When a licensee is advertising their own property for sale, purchase or exchange which is not listed with a broker, the licensee must1
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  34. A broker presented an offer to a seller with an additional stipulation that the seller provide a $5000 flooring allowance. The seller refused the offer. Can the broker collect his earned commission?1
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  35. Brokers may give legal advice1
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  36. When an offer is made on a property owned by a party with whom the broker has entered into a listing agreement, such broker shall document and date an acceptance or rejection of the offer and1
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  37. Which is an example of an agent’s fiduciary responsibilities?1
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  38. Of the following, what constitutes an open listing?1
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  39. In 2005, the DOJ filed a suit against the National Association of Realtors alleging that NAR’s policies denied equal access to listing data from __________________ who relied on the internet to do business.1
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  40. The broker of XYZ Realty obtained a 6 month exclusive-right-to-sell listing from Carol, but did absolutely nothing to market the property for 60 days. Which of the following statements is FALSE?1
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  41. MATCH: Agency coupled with an interest1
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  42. All exclusive listing agreements shall be in writing, properly identify the property to be sold and contain all of the terms and conditions under which the transaction is to be consummated including the sales price, the considerations to be paid, the signatures of all parties to the agreement and1
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  43. “Fiduciary Responsibility” are those duties due the principal (client) in a real estate transaction are1
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  44. When taking a listing, the agent should verify1
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  45. “Disclosed Dual Agent” is when1
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  46. Buyer Tom’s offer has been accepted by the seller. Buyer Tom has requested entry to the property so that he can paint it before his family moves in. What should his agent tell Tom?1
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  47. An affiliated broker can not act independently of his employing broker1
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  48. A real estate broker or salesperson in the ordinary course of his business may give an opinion as to the price of real estate for the purpose of a prospective listing or sale, however this opinion as to the listing price or sale price1
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  49. To create Agency, there must be delegated authority and1
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  50. Agent Carol just received her third low offer on one of her listings this morning. She believes the Seller will not accept any of them. What should Agent Carol do?1
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  51. A broker is showing a buyer one of his residential listings. The buyer says he wants to establish a day care center for seniors in the property. The property has been used as a day care center for no more than five children. How should the broker advise this buyer?1
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  52. DISCLOSURE – Match1
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  53. The client would like to sell his house after owning it for one year. The client let the agent know that the property was treated for termites 14 months ago. What should the agent do?1
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  54. Which of the following factors would cause a broker the most problems in an exclusive agency listing agreement?1
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  55. Which of the following would cancel a listing agreement?1
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  56. MATCH: Commission1
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  57. MATCH: COALD1
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  58. A dual agency is in effect when1
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  59. A seller had her house listed. Her agent received an offer on the property in which she presented to the seller. While the seller was considering the offer, the agent received a second offer on the property. According to the agent’s office policy, the agent does not present the second offer until the seller has accepted or rejected the first offer. In this scenario, the agent’s actions are?1
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  60. MATCH: Listing agreement1
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  61. Buyer Beware – Match1
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  62. Special situations, where unusual facts exist or where one or more parties involved are especially vulnerable, could require additional disclosures not contemplated. In such cases, brokers1
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  63. Which of the following is a broker who attempts to find a buyer for a property listed by another broker.1
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  64. A buyer withdraws his offer to purchase a property before it was accepted. His agent should1
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  65. Law of agency1
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  66. MATCH: Express agreement1
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  67. When is a broker relieved of presenting an offer?1
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  68. When a broker is agent for the seller and for any reason the seller fails or is unable to consummate the transaction, the broker has no right to any portion of the money deposited by the purchaser1
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  69. States require real estate brokers and agents to be at least1
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  70. What is a requirement of a universal agent?1
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  71. What would not be a reason to use an ibuyer?1
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  72. The purpose of the Agency Disclosure is to document an acknowledgement that the consumer has been informed of various agency relationships, which are available in a real estate transaction.1
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  73. A buyer wishes to give a post-dated check with an offer. The broker should:1
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  74. An offer from Fred has been accepted by seller Tom. Fred decided to put his work tools into the garage before the transaction closed. What should Fred’s agent tell him?1
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  75. MATCH: Dual agency1
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  76. The phrase, “procuring cause” is most important to real estate agents in a1
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  77. A real estate broker appointed by a buyer to find property for the buyer.1
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  78. Who are exempt from having a real estate license?1
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  79. MATCH: Ratification1
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  80. Most state laws require that a special agent, as part of his responsibilities1
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  81. If an owner refuses to pay the broker an earned commission, the broker may properly seek relief by:1
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  82. What type of listing could create the most competition between the owner and listing agent selling the home?1
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  83. In the event one or more parties are not available to sign one or more disclosures forms, the disclosure will be accomplished orally. The applicable form will be so noted by the broker and said forms will be forwarded for signatures as soon as possible.1
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  84. When is a broker relieved of presenting an offer?1
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  85. The duty owned from the agent to his/her client is1
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  86. Broker Bob received an offer this morning for a property he has listed. Bob promptly called his client and then faxed the offer to his client. Later that day Bob received a second offer that was lower and had bad credit terms for financing. What should Broker Bob do?1
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  87. Puffing1
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  88. The document the buyer and seller sign to establish their legal rights is the1
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  89. All exclusive buyer representation agreements shall be in writing and properly identify the terms and conditions under which the buyer will rely on the broker for the purchase of real estate including the sales price, the considerations to be paid, the nature of all parties to the agreement and a definite date of expiration.1
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  90. One day after a broker’s listing on a property expired, the seller hired a new agent and that agent put the property on the MLS. A third agent called the broker with the expired listing and asked to see the property. The broker should respond by1
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  91. What is a client level duty relating to account of earnest money, actions, etc.1
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  92. A broker supplies the financing for a project to build condominiums with the stipulation that he has the exclusive right to sell the completed condos. Which of the following best describes this relationship?1
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  93. A seller’s statement in a property disclosure document means1
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  94. General agent1
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  95. At its most basic, real estate brokerage is about1
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  96. MATCH: Ready, willing and able buyer1
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  97. A change of responsible broker requires the salesperson1
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  98. The following may be exempt from having a license1
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  99. If a buyer asks for early occupancy, which of the following statements describe(s) the best way to protect the seller?1
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  100. Cooperation between brokerages has historically been through?1
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  101. MATCH: Agency1
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  102. A seller can enter into a “listing agreement” with a real estate firm authorizing the firm and its agent(s) to represent the seller in finding a buyer for his property.1
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  103. MATCH: Agent1
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  104. In the event the agency relationship changes between the parties to a real estate transaction1
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Advertising and Marketing on the Internet

  1. What is the internet broadcast outside range?1
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  2. As long as your device is connected to the internet,1
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  3. To ensure consumers receive accurate information1
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  4. Act or practice that causes or is likely to cause substantial injury to consumers which is not reasonably avoidable by consumers themselves and not outweighed by countervailing benefits to consumers or competition1
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  5. All of the following are disadvantages with online marketing except?1
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  6. Question Match: What do potential customers pay for these alternatives?1
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  7. Competitor restrictions on the amount or content of advertising that is truthful and not deceptive may be legal if evidence shows the restrictions have anticompetitive effects and lack reasonable business justifications.1
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Mississippi Advertising and Marketing

  1. An agent made real estate signs to put in the front yard of his client’s home. He did not put the name of his responsible broker or name of his real estate firm on the sign.1
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  2. In addition to disclosing their licensed status on all advertisements, licensees are required to disclose their license status1
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  3. When a licensee is advertising their own property for sale, purchase or exchange which is not listed with a broker, the licensee must1
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  4. A salesperson wants to advertise on an internet web page.1
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  5. The use of any copyrighted term or insignia on stationary, office signs, or in advertisement by any licensee not authorized to do so, will be considered1
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  6. A responsible broker must maintain an office and display the license therein. If the broker has more than one office1
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  7. When advertising a property shared by an out of state broker1
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  8. The non resident broker can not place any sign on real property located in Mississippi without the written consent of the cooperating Mississippi broker. When both brokers place signs on the property.1
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  9. All teams must appoint a1
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Understanding Your Customer

  1. Competitive analysis helps you learn from businesses competing for your?1
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  2. Question Match: What do potential customers pay for these alternatives?1
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  3. Question Match: How many similar options are already available to consumers?1
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  4. Question Match: Where do your customers live and where can your business reach?1
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  5. Question Match: What is the income range and employment rate?1
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  6. Question Match: How many people would be interested in your offering?1
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  7. Question Match: Is there a desire for your product or service?1
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  8. Gather _______________________ to better understand opportunities and limitations for gaining customers.1
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Marketing

  1. All of the following are disadvantages with online marketing except?1
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  2. What would be a good first marketing activity to ‘touch’ your Circle of Influence?1
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  3. Specializing in a narrow segment of the market is known as ___________ marketing?1
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  4. Twice each year, the manager announces a meeting for the sales staff to discuss ways the company can improve its marketing and advertising program. This is an example of a which type of a meeting.1
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  5. Marketing is “The process of planning and executing the conception, pricing, promotion, and distribution of ideas, goods, and services to create exchanges that satisfy individual and organizational objectives.”1
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  6. MATCH: Marketing1
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  7. The process of developing and maintaining a strategic fit between the organization’s goals and capabilities and its changing marketing opportunities1
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  8. The process of gathering, analyzing and presenting data relevant to marketing.1
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  9. The more information you have about customers, the easier it is to target your marketing efforts.1
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  10. What is the most proven method of building and growing a successful real estate practice?1
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  11. Which of the following would most buyers and sellers consider important in selecting a real estate professional?1
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  12. Potential clients received through the agent’s good will and treatment of current clients1
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  13. Which groups should be included in your “sphere of influence?”1
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  14. __________ is the preferred business.1
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  15. A specific area with definite boundaries that is being worked by an agent is also known as a __________farm.1
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  16. What is a benefit of direct-mail prospecting?1
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  17. Call reluctance:1
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Social Media. Should I?

Real Estate Advertising is heavily dependent on Social Media Marketing. If you use social media for marketing please explain the platform/s that you use and why you use it/them. If you do not use Social Media Marketing please explain the reason why.1

National Fair Housing Alliance and Advertising

  1. Civil Rights Advocate’s Lawsuit v. Facebook: __________ 

 

2. As more consumers rely on Big Tech in their daily lives, it is important that companies abide by and enforce ___________  across their platforms.

 

3. National Fair Housing Alliance v. Facebook alleged that Facebook created pre-populated lists that made it possible for its housing advertisers to “exclude” home seekers from viewing or receiving rental or sales ads because of

4. The complaint in the National Fair Housing Alliance v. Facebook case, alleges that Facebook’s classification of its users and its ad targeting tools permit landlords, developers, and housing service providers to limit the audience for their ads based on sex, religion, familial status, and national origin in violation of the FHA.

5. The National Fair Housing Alliance is

6. Ignorance of the law is

7. If you are advertising online, understand that

8. In jurisdictions that prohibit discrimination based on source of income, it would be a violation to post an advertisement that states

9. All of the following are violations of fair housing in advertising except?

Prospecting

  1. Which of the following is NOT a place to look for people who are moving1
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  2. We can best measure a Seller’s motivation by;1
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  3. Before contacting a FSBO, I need to verify that;1
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  4. Whether you choose to geographically or demographically farm, always stay true to1
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  5. Demographic farming is best described as1
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  6. Why might an agent consider farming an area where there is some competition1
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  7. Which of the following would most buyers and sellers consider important in selecting a real estate professional?1
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  8. Define: Public Relations1
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  9. CMA stands for1
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  10. Open houses are good for:1
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  11. Which groups should be included in your “sphere of influence?”1
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  12. What is : Data analysis that gives the sellers a price range for their home by comparing to similar homes that have recently sold1
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  13. What is FSBO?1
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  14. Talking to _________ owners of homes around one of your company’s listings is an effective method of finding additional sellers.1
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  15. Which of these would be the BEST example of a face to face with a neighbor of a home you have just listed?1
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  16. Which of these would offset the appearance that you provide nothing but lip service?1
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  17. Your success depends on the ________ of your relationships with other people.1
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  18. Once a contact agrees to help you expand your business, you must __________.1
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  19. __________ is the preferred business.1
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  20. What Act was established to regulate loans that are publicly advertised?1
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  21. A prospect information file system is also known as a _________system?1
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  22. What is the fine for calling people who are in the do not call registry?1
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  23. No limits on size of farming is also known as _________ farming?1
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  24. Specializing in a narrow segment of the market is known as ___________ marketing?1
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  25. The process of locating owners that are interested in selling and prospective buyers who are interested in purchasing property is also known as_________?1
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  26. Under do not call regulations which call would be improper?1
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  27. Which classified ad category is NOT likely to provide listing leads?1
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  28. Legal notices provide good leads for listings. Which is NOT a legal notice?1
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  29. An example of a non-geographic farm would be specialization in…1
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  30. What would be an indication that an owner might be interested in selling an income property?1
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  31. Direct mail solicitation for listings is more effective when you…1
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  32. Prospecting from home to home is also known as ________canvassing?1
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  33. Centers of influence are called _________.1
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  34. You need to call a prospect and ask for a sales appointment. Which of the following would be LEAST effective when making a telephone appointment?1
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  35. What is a benefit of direct-mail prospecting?1
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  36. Call reluctance:1
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  37. __________ is a group of names gathered from various sources.1
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  38. The ______ should be specific, measurable, and directly beneficial to the customer.1
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  39. What term is used to describe a person or business who might be a prospect?1
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  40. A tow-truck operator listening to a police scanner is using the ________ to find prospects.1
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  41. Salespeople use a ________ to lead the prospect through the five mental steps in buying.1
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  42. _____ prospecting relies solely on the volume of “cold” calls made.1
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  43. Which of the following questions is NOT suggests for a salesperson to ask of himself/herself to determine if a lead is actually a qualified prospect?1
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  44. Creating a niche for your business is essential for success.1
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  45. There are four basic ways you can identify your customers.1
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  46. Conducting customer research will help you tailor your marketing and develop sales tactics based on reliable, accurate information.1
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  47. Entrepreneurs should audit their company’s performance at least quarterly.1
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  48. Marketing efforts are the most successful when they focus on what the consumer wants, not on what you THINK the consumer wants.1
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  49. Web analytics analyze your website traffic.1
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  50. Analytics is the measurement and tracking of metrics.1
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  51. There are numerous methods to measure your marketing success.1
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Americans with Disabilities Act

  1. One of my employees has a broken arm that will heal but is temporarily unable to perform the essential functions of his job as a mechanic. Is this employee protected by the ADA?1
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  2. One of my employees is a diabetic, but takes insulin daily to control his diabetes. As a result, the diabetes has no significant impact on his employment. Is he protected by the ADA?1
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  3. If I have several qualified applicants for a job, does the ADA require that I hire the applicant with a disability?1
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  4. In compliance with the ADA, all architectural barriers in existing facilities must be removed:1
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  5. ADA laws require a landlord to:1
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  6. The ADA required all of the following alterations to a public facility except?1
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  7. May an employer ask a job applicant whether he has or had cancer or about his treatment related to cancer prior to making a job offer?1
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  8. May an employer ask a job applicant whether she has an intellectual disability before making a job offer?1
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  9. Does a reasonable accommodation include changing a person’s supervisor?1
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  10. What are my responsibilities as an employer for making my facilities accessible?1
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  11. If our business has a health spa in the building, must it be accessible to employees with disabilities?1
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  12. Am I obligated to provide a reasonable accommodation for an individual if I am unaware of her physical or mental impairment?1
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  13. Are Hiring Managers allowed to test employee candidates for drugs?1
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  14. You can ask an applicant questions about ability to perform job-related functions1
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  15. The law requires an employer to provide reasonable accommodation to an employee or job applicant with a disability, unless doing so would cause significant difficulty or expense for the employer.1
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  16. Involves treating people (applicants or employees) unfavorably because they are from a particular country or part of the world, because of ethnicity or accent, or because they appear to be of a certain ethnic background (even if they are not).1
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  17. Involves treating a woman (an applicant or employee) unfavorably because of pregnancy, childbirth, or a medical condition related to pregnancy or childbirth.1
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  18. An employee can be forced to participate (or not participate) in a religious activity as a condition of employment.1
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  19. If you have at least one employee:1
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  20. An employer may not ask a job applicant to answer1
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  21. If you cannot provide the employee’s preferred accommodation, determine whether you can provide an alternative accommodation and explain why the preferred accommodation was1
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  22. Requiring that applicants be within a certain height or weight range may have an especially negative effect on1
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  23. A person can show that he or she has a disability in which of the following ways?1
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  24. A person can show that he or she has a disability in one of ….1
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  25. The law also requires that employers keep all medical records and information1
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Equal Housing Opportunity Resources

  1. Which of the following would not be included in a deed restriction?1
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  2. When soliciting listings of homes in an area where minorities had recently purchased homes, Broker A told his salespeople to solicit only Caucasian owners for listings as they will likely want to leave the area. This action would be regarded as1
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  3. All of the following forms of discrimination are prohibited under the 1968 federal fair housing act except1
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  4. Under federal law, a landlord may properly refuse to:1
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  5. Actions that are illegal by federal and state fair housing laws include:1
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  6. A person seeking intervention, who believes that they have been subject to discriminatory housing practice, must:1
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  7. The provisions of the 1968 Federal Fair Housing Act apply:1
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  8. In compliance with the ADA, all architectural barriers in existing facilities must be removed:1
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  9. ADA laws require a landlord to:1
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  10. Blockbusting is an acceptable practice:1
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  11. A refusal to make reasonable accommodations in rules, policies, practices, or services when such accommodations may be necessary to afford such person equal opportunity to use and enjoy a dwelling is one definition of:1
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  12. The illegal activity that occurs when competing brokers get together to set commission rates is called:1
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  13. A real estate licensee went into a neighborhood to obtain listings of residential property. He made representations that because of the entry into the neighborhood of minority groups, property values would be reduced by a decline in the quality of schools and an increase in the crime rate. These practices by the licensee are:1
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  14. The law that requires accessibility to employment, goods, and services for individuals with disabilities:1
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  15. Who does not have to display an Equal Opportunity Housing sign?1
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  16. All of the following are defined and protected under familial status according to the 1988 amendment of the federal Fair Housing Law of 1968 EXCEPT :1
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  17. ADA laws require a landlord to:1
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  18. Blockbusting is an acceptable practice:1
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  19. A refusal to make reasonable accommodations in rules, policies, practices, or services when such accommodations may be necessary to afford such person equal opportunity to use and enjoy a dwelling is one definition of:1
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  20. The Civil Rights Act of 1866 prohibits discrimination in housing based on:1
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  21. Antitrust Laws prohibit all except1
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  22. Inducing panic selling in a neighborhood is1
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  23. Ana, a property manager and who under usual circumstances would not have to give notice to vacate to a person whose one year lease will be coming to an end in 10 days. Ana has discovered that the tenant whose situation is mentioned above has been convicted of illegal drug dealing and knows she can legally not rent to the convicted drug dealer. Ana decided to give the convicted drug dealer a Notice to Vacate just in case. The drug dealer stayed in the property for 45 more days after the expiration of the lease and attempted to pay rent in which Ana refused. The tenant has1
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  24. Ana, a property manager, may legally refuse to rent to1
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  25. A mentally disabled person that was declared incompetent can’t enter into a contract unless1
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  26. A rental agent has allowed a person dependent on a wheelchair to make necessary, minor changes to a rental property, these changes are referred to as?1
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  27. Which of the following is not a protected class under the Federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act?1
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  28. The Civil Rights Act of 1866 prohibits discrimination in housing based on?1
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  29. Which of the following is legal?1
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  30. The ADA required all of the following alterations to a public facility except?1
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  31. Converting the format of a listing contract to large print is a response to?1
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  32. Which of the following is allowed under federal fair housing laws?1
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  33. Which laws provide guidance for making public facilities accessible?1
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  34. Denial of a mortgage would be allowed if the denial was based on?1
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  35. Under the Federal Fair Housing laws, which of the following is not protected?1
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  36. Which of the following is not allowed?1
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  37. The practice of directing potential buyers of a particular religion to an area populated mainly by their same religion is known as?1
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  38. Of the following, which are exempt from federal fair housing laws?1
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  39. Telling someone that minorities are moving into the area to induce panic selling is illegal and is known as?1
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  40. Federal Fair housing laws prohibit discrimination on the basis of?1
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  41. Under federal fair housing laws, it is legal to prohibit which of the following in a housing unit?1
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  42. An applicant for rental housing has a child who uses a wheelchair. The bathroom door in the dwelling unit is too narrow to permit the wheelchair to pass. The applicant asks the landlord for permission to widen the doorway at the applicant’s own expense. Can the landlord refuse to rent to this person for this demand?1
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  43. When a handicapped person is allowed to make modifications to a rental property, the cost of such modifications is borne by1
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  44. When qualifying a prospective buyer or renter, a licensee may question the prospect about1
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  45. The Fair Housing Amendments Act of 1988 extends anti-discrimination coverage to the _____ and _____1
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  46. When is a multiple family dwelling with 4 or fewer units excluded by the Civil Rights Act of 1968?1
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  47. The act of improperly segregating the funds belonging to the agent from the funds received and held on behalf of another; the mixing of separate and community property.1
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  48. The federal law (often referred to as the Fair Housing Act) that prohibited discrimination in housing based on race, creed, or national origin1
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  49. The federal law enacted during Reconstruction that stated that people of any race may enjoy the right to enforce contracts, to sue, be parties, and give evidence, to inherit, purchase, lease, sell, hold, and convey real and personal property, and to full and equal benefit of all laws1
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  50. The illegal practice of representing that prices will decline, or crime increase, or other negative effects will occur because of the entrance of minorities into particular areas.1
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  51. This federal act that prohibits discrimination against persons with disabilities, where “disability” is defined as “a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits a major life activity.”1
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  52. A Lithuanian-American real estate broker offers a special discount to Lithuanian-American clients. This practice is:1
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  53. If a mortgage lender discriminates against a loan applicant on the basis of marital status, it violates what law?1
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  54. A real estate broker wants to end racial segregation. As an office policy, the broker requires that salespersons show prospective buyers from racial or ethnic minority groups only properties that are in certain areas of town where few members of their groups currently live. The broker has prepared a map illustrating the appropriate neighborhoods for each racial or ethnic group. Through this policy, the broker hopes to achieve racial balance in residential housing. Which of the following statements is true regarding this broker’s policy?1
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  55. Which of the following would not be permitted under the federal Fair Housing Act?1
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  56. Generally, what would not be considered a “reasonable accommodation” for persons with disabilities?1
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  57. The act of directing home seekers toward or away from particular areas either to maintain or to change the character of the neighborhood is:1
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  58. “I hear they’re moving in. There goes the neighborhood! Better put your house on the market before values drop!” This is an example of what illegal practice?1
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  59. The Americans With Disabilities Act applies to private employers when:1
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  60. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act forbids discrimination by employers, unions, and employment agencies against persons:1
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  61. Which of the following statements is true of complaints relating to the Civil Rights Act of 1866?1
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  62. The Equal Pay Act:1
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  63. Race Discrimination1
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  64. Federal administrative agency responsible for enforcing most federal anti-discrimination laws1
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  65. May an employer ask a job applicant whether he has or had cancer or about his treatment related to cancer prior to making a job offer?1
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  66. Involves treating people (applicants or employees) unfavorably because they are from a particular country or part of the world, because of ethnicity or accent, or because they appear to be of a certain ethnic background (even if they are not).1
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  67. Involves treating a woman (an applicant or employee) unfavorably because of pregnancy, childbirth, or a medical condition related to pregnancy or childbirth.1
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  68. An employee can be forced to participate (or not participate) in a religious activity as a condition of employment.1
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  69. Involves treating a person (an applicant or employee) unfavorably because of his or her religious beliefs.1
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  70. Involves treating someone (an applicant or employee) unfavorably because of that person’s sex. treating someone (an applicant or employee) unfavorably because of that person’s sex.1
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  71. Involves treating someone (an applicant or employee) unfavorably because he/she is of a certain race or because of personal characteristics associated with race (such as hair texture, skin color, or certain facial features).1
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Housing Choice Voucher – Section 8

HAP is the acronym for?

 

 

Antitrust

  1. Pre-merger notification filings, correspondence from consumers or businesses, inquiries, or articles on consumer or subjects may trigger an FTC investigation.1
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  2. Check both (2) entities that enforce the antitrust laws.1
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  3. Section 7 of the Clayton Act prohibits ___________________________ where the effect “may be substantially to lessen competition, or to tend to create a monopoly.”1
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  4. Which Act bans “unfair methods of competition” and “unfair or deceptive acts or practices.”?1
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  5. The Sherman Act imposes criminal penalties of up to_________________for a corporation and __________________ for an individual, along with up to _________________ in prison.1
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  6. Certain acts are considered so harmful to competition that they are almost always illegal. These include all of the following except1
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  7. The basic objectives of the antitrust laws are to1
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  8. Congress passed the first antitrust law, the ________________________, in 1890 as a “comprehensive charter of economic liberty aimed at preserving free and unfettered competition as the rule of trade.”1
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  9. Antitrust violations include all of the following except1
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  10. ________ advertising is illegal1
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  11. Who is not subject to the truth in lending act?1
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  12. The illegal activity that occurs when competing brokers get together to set commission rates is called:1
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  13. Plain agreements among competitors to divide sales territories or assign customers are almost always1
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  14. Our company monitors competitors’ ads, and we sometimes offer to match special discounts or sales incentives for consumers. Is this a problem?1
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  15. Which of the following fees are addressed under Antitrust laws1
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  16. __________________occurs whenever two or more competitors agree to take actions that have the effect of raising, lowering or stabilizing the price of any product or service without any legitimate justification.1
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  17. When competitors agree to restrict competition, the result is often1
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  18. The _______________ require that each company establish prices and other terms on its own, without agreeing with a competitor.1
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  19. _______________is an agreement (written, verbal, or inferred from conduct) among competitors that raises, lowers, or stabilizes prices or competitive terms.1
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  20. Because buying a home is the single most important purchase many consumers will make, the ________________________ has enforced antitrust rules in the real estate business to make sure that increased competition continues to lead to more choices, better prices and stepped-up services for buyers and sellers.1
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  21. Price-fixing is an ___________ unreasonable restraint of trade.1
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  22. The U.S. government’s interest in Microsoft began in 1992 with an inquiry by the Federal Trade Commission1
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  23. By 1984 Microsoft was1
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  24. Forming a trade association1
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  25. Most trade association activities are pro-competitive or competitively1
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  26. Boycotts targeting “price cutters” are1
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  27. Boycotts to prevent a firm from entering a market or to disadvantage an existing competitor are1
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  28. In order to compete in modern markets, competitors sometimes need to1
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  29. Pricing tactics employed by a dominant firm to drive competitors out of business, such as temporarily selling below marginal cost or dropping the price only in certain markets.1
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  30. Government Regulation aimed at improving health and safety1
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  31. The ability of a firm to raise its price without losing all its customers to rival firms1
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  32. Which violation would it be if Bob required his buyer to purchase swamp land in order for the buyer to buy the property he really wants?1
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  33. Which of the following defines the Sherman Act?1
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  34. What is the definition of Competitive price/price equilibrium?1
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  35. Which of the following groups or organizations IS NOT exempt from the federal antitrust laws?1
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  36. The federal antitrust laws are enforced by:1
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  37. If a franchisor requires that a franchisee purchase all of its goods from the franchisor, this may violate which part of the federal antitrust laws?1
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  38. Which of the following IS NOT a violation of the Clayton Act?1
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  39. Predatory pricing occurs when:1
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  40. Market power is defined as:1
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  41. One of the most powerful tools that the federal government has for maintaining a competitive economy is:1
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  42. The basis of antitrust law is what?1
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  43. Today’s antitrust laws are direct descendant’s of which common law actions?1
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  44. Under the law of agency, a real estate broker owes all of the following duties to the principal except:1
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  45. Unlike Standard Oil, however, Microsoft was not broken up.1
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  46. The person who is responsible for determining how the company charges for its services is1
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  47. A broker has established the following office policy: “All listings taken by any salesperson associated with this real estate brokerage must include compensation based on a 7 percent commission. No lower commission rate is acceptable.” If the broker attempts to impose this uniform commission requirement, which of the following statements is true?1
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  48. Two competing real estate brokers meet for lunch and decide that a local property developer is gaining too much influence in the market. The two brokers decide to try to drive the developer out of business. One of the brokers happens to own a parcel of farmland that is key to the success of the developer’s new subdivision, Alphabet Acres. The other broker owns 17 acres of polluted swamp next to an oil refinery. When the developer offers to buy the farmland, the broker responds that the property is for sale only if the developer also buys the other broker’s swamp at the same time. Without the farmland, Alphabet Acres will fail. Unfortunately, the developer doesn’t have enough cash to pay the price demanded for the swamp. Rather than risk bankruptcy, the developer leaves town. This scenario is an example of which of the following violations of the antitrust laws?1
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  49. A broker has established the following office policy: “All listings taken by any salesperson associated with this real estate brokerage must include compensation based on a 7 percent commission. No lower commission rate is acceptable.” If the broker attempts to impose this uniform commission requirement, which of the following statements is true?1
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  50. At their regular monthly meeting, a group of local brokers agree that the introduction of “discount brokerages” in their area would be bad for business. Thus, they informally agree to charge commission rates no lower than 6 percent for the coming year; there was, however, no limit placed on the amount of commission above that figure the brokers could charge. This type of “friendly” agreement is:1
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  51. What is the FTC’s competition mission?1
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  52. Which of the following is not a function of the antitrust laws?1
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  53. Even as the Sherman Act played out in the railroad industry, Rockefeller’s Standard Oil Trust continued to wage a relentless assault on the petroleum industry1
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  54. With few exceptions, everyday life in the latter half of the 19th century lacked the telephone, the electric light, and the automobile1
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  55. The FTC is dedicated to advancing consumer interests while encouraging innovation and competition in our dynamic economy.1
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  56. Generally, FTC investigations are public to protect both the investigation and the individuals and companies involved.1
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 CHRISTOPHER MOEHRL Lawsuit 

 

  1. The CHRISTOPHER MOEHRL Class action Lawsuit is mostly addressing1
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  2. Which type trial is demanded from the Plaintiff, CHRISTOPHER MOEHRL?1
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  3. CHRISTOPHER MOEHRL as plaintiff is suing which of the following entities? (more than one answer is correct)1
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  4. The Basis for the CHRISTOPHER MOEHRL Lawsuit is founded on1
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Intra/Inter Office Confidentiality

  1. MATCH: Th881
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  2. MATCH: Looking over a person’s shoulder to get confidential information. It is an effective way to get information in crowded places because it’s relatively easy to stand next to someone and watch as they fill out a form, enter a PIN number at an ATM machine or type a password.1
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  3. A high-tech method by which thieves capture your personal or account information from your credit card, driver’s license or even passport using an electronic device called a “skimmer.”1
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  4. MATCH: A euphemism for non-technical or low-technology means—such as lies, impersonation, tricks, bribes, blackmail, and threats—used to attack information systems. Sometimes telemarketers or unethical employees employ such tactics.1
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  5. MATCH: Unwanted, unsolicited email from someone you don’t know.1
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  6. MATCH: Masquerading so that a trusted IP address is used instead of the true IP address.1
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  7. MATCH: An encryption system that protects the privacy of data exchanged by a website and the individual user. Used by websites whose URLs begin with https instead of http.1
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  8. MATCH: A computer program that appears to be beneficial or innocuous, but also has a hidden and potentially malicious function that evades security mechanisms.1
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  9. MATCH: Abbreviation for “Uniform (or Universal) Resource Locator.” :1
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  10. MATCH: Taking advantage of human error, some scammers use phishing emails to guide recipients to fraudulent sites with names very similar to established sites.1
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  11. MATCH: A hidden, self-replicating section of computer software, usually malicious logic, that propagates by infecting—i.e., inserting a copy of itself into and becoming part of — another program. A virus cannot run by itself; it requires that its host program be run to make the virus active. Often sent through email attachments.1
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  12. MATCH: Soliciting private information from customers or members of a business, bank or other organization in an attempt to fool them into divulging confidential personal and financial information.1
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  13. A flaw that allows someone to operate a computer system with authorization levels in excess of that which the system owner specifically granted.1
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  14. MATCH: A form of filtering that only allows connections to a pre-approved list of sites that are considered useful and appropriate for children. Parents sometimes use such software to prevent children from visiting all but certain websites.1
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  15. MATCH: Originally an acronym for “Write once, read many times,” a type of electronic infection that can run independently, can propagate a complete working version of itself onto other hosts on a network and may consume computer resources destructively.1
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  16. MATCH: A remote-access Trojan horse installs hidden code that allows your computer to be controlled remotely. Digital thieves then use robot networks to carry out attacks on other people and cover up their tracks. The criminals are using what type of computers?1
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  17. MATCH: An attack that attempts to cause a failure in the security of a computer by providing more input, such as a large volume of data requests, than it can properly process. See also Denial of Service Attack.1
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  18. MATCH: A hardware or software link in a network that inspects all data packets coming and going from a computer, permitting only thoseA hardware or software link in a network that inspects all data packets coming and going from a computer, permitting only thoseA hardware or software link in a network that inspects all data packets coming and going from a computer, permitting only those that are authorized to reach the other side.that are authorized to reach the other side.that are authorized to reach the other side.1
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  19. MATCH: Sometimes called peer-to-peer (P2P) programs, these allow many different users to access the same file at the same time.1
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  20. MATCH: A contract between you and your software’s vendor or developer.1
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  21. MATCH: A data security technique used to protect information from unauthorized inspection or alteration. Information is encoded so that it appears as a meaningless string of letters and symbols during delivery or transmission.1
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  22. MATCH: Often called “viruses,” these malicious programs and codes harm your computer and compromise your privacy.1
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  23. MATCH: Recovering files, letters, memos, photographs, IDs, passwords, checks, account statements, credit card offers and more from garbage cans and recycling bins.1
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  24. MATCH: The DNS is the way that Internet domain names are located.1
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  25. MATCH: An attack in which an attacker takes over a domain by first blocking access to the domain’s DNS server.1
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  26. MATCH: A password-cracking attack that tries all of the phrases or words in a dictionary.1
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  27. MATCH: Sending or posting harmful, cruel, rude or threatening messages, or slanderous information, text or images using the Internet or other digital communication devices.1
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  28. A card indicating the holder has been granted a line of credit.1
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  29. MATCH: A small file that is downloaded by some websites to store a packet of information on your browser. small file that is downloaded by some websites to store a packet of information on your browser.1
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  30. MATCH: A policy that directs all computer users to ensure that the contents of the screen are protected from prying eyes and opportunistic breaches of confidentially. Typically, the easiest means of compliance is to use a screen saver that engages either on request or after a specified short period of time.1
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  31. MATCH: A policy that directs all personnel to clear their desks at the end of each working day, and file everything appropriately.1
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  32. MATCH: An exhaustive password-cracking procedure that tries all possibilities, one by one.1
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  33. MATCH: A client software program that can retrieve and display information from servers on the World Wide Web. Examples include Microsoft’s Internet Explorer, Google’s Chrome, Apple’s Safari, and Mozilla’s Firefox.1
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  34. MATCH: The general term used to refer to high-speed network connections such as cable modem and Digital Subscriber Line (DSL).1
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  35. MATCH: Short for “Web log”.1
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  36. MATCH: A computer network attack that seeks to maximize the severity of damage and speed of contagion by combining methods—for example, using characteristics of both viruses and worms.1
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  37. MATCH: A form of filtering that blocks only websites specified as harmful.1
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  38. MATCH: The capacity of a communication channel to pass data such as text, images, video or sound through the channel in a given amount of time. Usually expressed in bits per second.1
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  39. MATCH: File copies that are saved as protection against loss, damage or unavailability of the primary data.1
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  40. MATCH: Hidden software or hardware mechanism used to circumvent security controls. used to circumvent security controls.1
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  41. MATCH: The approval, permission or empowerment for someone or something to do something.1
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  42. MATCH: Software designed to detect and potentially eliminate viruses before they have had a chance to wreak havoc within the system. Anti-virus software can also repair or quarantine files that have already been infected by virus activity.1
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  43. MATCH: Any software application that displays advertising banners while the program is running. Often includes code that tracks a user’s personal information and passes it on to third parties without the user’s authorization or knowledge.1
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  44. If you fall for a phishing scam, what should you do to limit the damage?1
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  45. You get a text message from a vendor who asks you to click on a link to renew your password so that you can log in to its website. You should:1
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  46. Which one of these statements is correct?1
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  47. What is ransomware?1
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  48. Cyber criminals only target large companies.1
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  49. Which is the best answer for which people in a business should be responsible for cybersecurity?1
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  50. Backing up important files offline, on an external hard drive or in the cloud, will help protect your business in the event of a cyber attack. True or False?1
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  51. The User-ID feature identifies the user and IP address of the computer the user is logged into for Next Generation firewall policy enforcement.1
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  52. A wireless technology that uses short-range radio frequency (RF) transmissions and provides for rapid ad hoc device pairings.1
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  53. A location where wireless data services are available is known as a(n)1
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  54. Bluetooth devices communicate using small radio transceivers called radio modules built onto microprocessor chips.1
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  55. To create a duplicate copy of data that is stored on a separate hard drive or computer system to prevent the loss of the data.1
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  56. Searches a computer system for computer viruses.1
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  57. Unauthorized access or use of sensitive data.1
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  58. What do phishing hackers tend to rely on?1
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  59. What is a brute force attack?1
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  60. A strong password should have:1
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  61. Select all actions needed to protect your data on social networking sites:1
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  62. Anyone who has your password can:1
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  63. Hackers who use your password and send emails pretending to be you are an example of breaching:1
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  64. All of the following include the definition of cybersecurity except..1
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  65. As an agent, you are not required to secure the identity of persons registered under Meghan’s Law.1
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  66. Please select the Common Law Fiduciary Duties1
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  67. The body of law that developed from decisions of the courts (precedents) along with unwritten principles of fairness and justice.1
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  68. ________ are the primary means of authentication for a user’s computer and other networks and servers to which the user may have access.1
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  69. The process of hardening a Web site is a ________ safeguard.1
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  70. When an employee is terminated, administrators should receive advance notice so that they can ________.1
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  71. ________ refers to an organization-wide function that is in charge of developing data policies and enforcing data standards.1
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  72. ________ is similar to spyware in that it is installed without the user’s permission and that it resides in the background and observes user behavior.1
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  73. ________ are viruses that masquerade as useful programs or files.1
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  74. ________ is a broad category of software that includes viruses, spyware, and adware.1
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  75. Mark is transferring funds online through the Web site of a reputed bank. Which of the following will be displayed in the address bar of his browser that will let him know that the bank is using the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocol?1
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  76. In asymmetric encryption, each site has a ________ for encoding messages.1
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  77. Which of the following is classified as a technical safeguard?1
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  78. ________ are small files that enables a browser to access Web sites without having to sign in every time.1
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  79. Which of the following is a personal security safeguard?1
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  80. ________ present(s) the largest risk for an organization’s infrastructure loss.1
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  81. Which of the following is most likely to be a result of hacking?1
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  82. ________ involves breaking into a network to steal data such as customer lists, product inventory data, employee data, and other proprietary and confidential data.1
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  83. ________ occurs when someone deceives by pretending to be someone else.1
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  84. A ________ pretends to be a legitimate company and sends an email requesting confidential data, such as account numbers, Social Security numbers, account passwords, and so forth1
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  85. Which of the following is an example of a sniffing technique?1
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  86. At a minimum, an organization’s security policy about protecting the data it gathers on employees must include all of the following, except ________.1
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  87. Which of the following usually happens in a malicious denial-of-service attack?1
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  88. Which of the following is a critical security function of senior management in an organization?1
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  89. Which of the following is true about IT security?1
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  90. All of the following are types of malware, except ________.1
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  91. Which of the following is considered a threat caused by human error?1
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  92. Which of the following threats is NOT considered a computer crime aimed at unauthorized data disclosure?1
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  93. All of the following statements are good practices to protect against security threats, except ________.1
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  94. What among the following is NOT a type of security loss?1
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  95. All of the following are ways an organization prepares to respond to a security incident, except ________.1
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  96. ________ a site means to take extraordinary measures to reduce a system’s vulnerability, using special versions of the operating system.1
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  97. Non-word passwords are vulnerable to a(n) ________ attack, in which the password cracker tries every possible combination of characters.1
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  98. Data safeguards include all of the following, except ________.1
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  99. The most secure and hard-to-break passwords have all of the following characteristics, except ________1
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  100. Which of the following is true about confidentiality?1
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  101. Which of the following is considered a computer crime?1
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  102. Technical safeguards against computer security threats include all of the following except ________.1
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  103. The tool most commonly used to achieve confidentiality is _____.1
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  104. A ________ is an opportunity for threats to gain access to assets.1
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  105. A ________ is a number used to encrypt data.1
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  106. Which of the following usually happens in a malicious denial-of-service attack?1
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  107. A ________ is a person or an organization that seeks to obtain or alter data or other IS assets illegally, without the owner’s permission and often without the owner’s knowledge.1
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  108. In information security, which of the following is true of managing risk?1
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  109. Which of the following statements is true about human safeguards for employees?1
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  110. ABC Realty computers are being held inaccessible by ransomeware. What is the pre organized plan to bring the brokerage information back to recovery?.1
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  111. A person was able to hack into Betty’s computer and steal personal information including a credit card information. The criminal has just put a $5.00 transaction on the card to see if it was usable. What is the process the criminal is using?1
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  112. A data breach happens1
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  113. William Alberts and his daughter Jane Alberts buy a tract of land for cash, and the property is deeded to them with rights of survivorship. William and Jane are:1
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  114. A broker may execute a contract on behalf of his principal when he is a(an):1
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  115. The type of agency a real estate broker and seller enter into when they execute a listing agreement is generally considered to be:1
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  116. It is illegal for a broker to represent both the buyer and seller in the same transaction unless:1
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  117. The__________________ prosecutes cases of identity theft and fraud under a variety of federal statutes.1
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  118. Which of the following is not an example of identifying information?1
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  119. What should you do if you are unsure if something is confidential or not?1
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  120. Why is confidentiality important?1
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  121. _________about the principal’s personal affairs is a key element of loyalty.1
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  122. The company’s top producer has violated a company policy. You have had several discussions with the person about this and the salesperson agreed to ways to prevent this from happening again. When you find the problem has reoccurred, your next step is to1
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  123. Financial Fraud Kill Chain1
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  124. Once a complaint has been filed with the IC3, it can be canceled.1
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  125. One of the best sources for verifying information about an owner’s correct legal name and a property’s legal description is:1
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  126. Internet Crime Complaint Center1
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  127. Which of the following is the type of information IC3 ask for in the complaint form?1
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  128. Includes viruses, spyware, and other unwanted software that gets installed on your computer or mobile device without your consent.1
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  129. The IC3’s ability to process your complaint will be based upon which of the following?1
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  130. What To Do When You’ve Been Hacked1
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  131. Who should file a complaint with the Internet Crime Complaint Center (IC3)?1
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  132. Financial Crimes Enforcement Network1
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  133. In an effort to persuade a wary Internet auction participant, the perpetrator will propose the use of a third-party escrow service to facilitate the exchange of money and merchandise.1
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  134. Which of the following is not a scenerio of BEC complaints?1
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  135. There are_____________main scenarios by which this scam is perpetrated1
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  136. The fraudsters will not use the method most commonly associated with their victim’s normal business practices, instead they will use the format most easily hacked.1
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  137. The BEC scam could be carried out by all of the following except.1
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  138. BEC is defined as:1
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  139. IC3 Stands for:1
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  140. BUSINESS E-MAIL COMPROMISE scam has been estimated to cost around1
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  141. Schemes in which criminals compromise the e-mail accounts of victims to send fraudulent wire transfer instructions to financial institutions in order to misappropriate funds.1
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  142. The victims of the BEC scam1
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  143. Business E-mail Compromise (BEC)1
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  144. They often use familiar company names or pretend to be someone you know. They pressure you to act now – or something bad will happen.1
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  145. When someone uses fake emails or texts – even phone calls – to get you to share valuable personal information, like account numbers, Social Security numbers, or your login IDs and passwords.1
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  146. The Nathan Hardwick IV trial1
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  147. _______________ created the Financial Fraud Kill Chain (FFKC)1
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  148. Includes viruses, spyware, and other unwanted software that gets installed on your computer or mobile device without your consent.1
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  149. You might have been hacked if:1
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  150. Hardwick resigned August 18, 2014. The firm filed for bankruptcy 11 months later.1
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Environmental Hazards

  1. Which of the following would generally be included in the Phase I assessment of a parcel where hazardous substances may have been disposed?1
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  2. The federal government requires that a property owner provide a brochure that discloses the hazards of lead-based paint to a prospective purchaser when the subject property was built:1
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  3. If a Lead-Based Paint Disclosure form is not executed at the time of the sale of a dwelling built prior to 1978, the purchaser:1
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  4. The Hudson River hazardous waste site is considered to be one of the largest in the nation.1
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  5. Lung cancer kills thousands of Americans every year.1
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  6. Private homes built before 1978 may contain potentially dangerous levels of lead. The FHA1
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  7. Under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA) who is liable for damages from the dumping hazardous waste on the property being sold?1
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  8. An Environmental Impact Statement1
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  9. Radon has been found in every state1
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  10. Radon is1

    Radon is Radon is Radon is Radon is 

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  11. Radon1
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  12. Black mold is an environmental concern and in known as/to:1
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  13. A certified inspector should check around potentially wet areas such as showers, toilets and basements for which hazard?1
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  14. Airborne asbestos fibers are known as?1
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  15. What term refers to what happens to asbestos when it ages, disintegrates and become airborne?1
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  16. Strict liability under the superfund means?1
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  17. Ground water contamination could come from the following except?1
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  18. Banned from use in the 1970’s, this material was pumped between the walls for insulation:1
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  19. What mineral was used for insulation on heating ducts?1
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  20. Which hazard enters the house through the basement?1
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  21. A broker presented an offer to her seller. The Seller rejected it. The broker presented a second offer. Prior to the seller accepting or countering the second offer, the buyer calls the agent and rescinds the offer. At this point in time, there is?1
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  22. There are five communities receiving the EPA Grant for Mississippi.1
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  23. A naturally occurring mineral composite that once was used extensively as insulation in residential and commercial buildings, in brake pads, and in fire-retardant products, such as furniture. As asbestos ages, it breaks down to small fibers that, if inhaled in sufficient quantity over sufficient time, can cause a variety of ailments, including a type of cancer known as mesothelioma.1
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  24. An agent listed a property that was built in 1951. By federal law, the agent must have the sellers fill out a?1
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  25. Which of the following was once pumped as insulation and is now banned1
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  26. Which of the following was banned in 1978?1
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  27. Which of the following is a naturally-occurring radioactive gas located in soils with a concentration of uranium in the rock.1
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  28. Which of the following is a substance which causes cancer in human beings.1
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  29. Which of the following could be classified as noxious or annoying man-made conditions which are injurious to health or interfere with an individual’s sensitivities?1
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  30. What mineral has been illegal since 1978; used in siding, roofing, shingles, interior floors and ceiling tiles, insulation for hot water pipes, vinyl and acoustical tiles, some textured paints?1
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  31. What is the Radon like in the county in which you live? State the county.1
     
     
  32. What chemical was found in Grenada?1
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  33. What does (TCE) stand for?1
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  34. Studies have shown that residential property values near brownfields sites that are cleaned up increased between1
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  35. Which city did not receive a EPA grant?1
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  36. How many superfund site are there currently in the state of Mississippi?1
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  37. CERCLA was amended by1
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  38. Superfund law created a tax on1
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  39. Superfund program focuses on1
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  40. The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) is commonly known as1
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  41. EPA’s Superfund program is responsible for1
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  42. An agent is representing a seller. The seller discloses that hazardous materials were dumped on the land prior to the seller’s purchase of the property. Under CERCLA rules and laws, who is liable for removal of the hazardous materials after the seller sells the land?1
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  43. CERCLA was amended by the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA) on October 17, 1986.1
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  44. CERCLA authorizes two kinds of response actions.1
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  45. CERCLA created a tax on the chemical and petroleum industries and provided broad Federal authority to respond directly to releases or threatened releases of hazardous substances that may endanger public health or the environment.1
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  46. The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA), commonly known as Superfund, was enacted by Congress on December 11, 1980.1
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  47. When a prospective buyer receives a Lead Based Paint Disclosure, he1
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  48. An environmental study is underway in and around Eastern Heights in Grenada, MS to evaluate the possibility that contaminants may be traveling from the former Grenada Manufacturing, LLC, facility (Facility, now Grenada Stamping) or another source into the community.1
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Buying a House

  1. Typically, borrowers making a down payment of less than _________ percent of the purchase price of the home will need to pay for mortgage insurance.1
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  2. If your mortgage loan does not have an escrow account,1
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  3. Why do some mortgagees require mortgagors to pay taxes and insurance with an escrow account?1
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  4. What are the four components of an impond mortgage payment?mortgage?1
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  5. When are borrowers required to have a Mortgage escrow account?1
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  6. A broker and the buyers he represents are anxiously awaiting the closing on their new home. The closing is scheduled in 4 days. The buyers inform the broker that they just received a revised Good Faith Estimate and Truth in Lending disclosure from the lender indicating the Annual Percentage Rate on their loan has increased by 0.3%. Based on the Mortgage Disclosure Improvement Act of 2009, what action should the broker take in this situation?1
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  7. If you don’t have homeowner’s insurance, or don’t have enough homeowner’s insurance, or your homeowner’s insurance has lapsed, your lender could put1
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  8. In addition, if you fail to pay your taxes or insurance, your lender may:1
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  9. If your property taxes and/or insurance premiums change, your total monthly payment will change.1
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  10. An escrow account is sometimes called an impound account. escrow account is sometimes called an impound account.1
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  11. insurance policy that protects lenders in case borrowers can’t pay1
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  12. What bills are not paid from an escrow account?1
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  13. You can make up a shortage in 1 of ______ ways1
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  14. If the money in your escrow account is projected to be below your minimum balance at its lowest point in the __________ period, you have a shortage.1
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  15. Property taxes and insurance premiums ____________1
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  16. What is escrow?1
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  17. Where do you go to obtain a FHA loan?1
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  18. The FHA is most like a1
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  19. When the sellers are lending part of the purchase price, they may secure the debt either with a deed of trust or a mortgage. For the seller, one benefit of the deed of trust is that1
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  20. A characteristic of an ARM is?1
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  21. In helping a buyer to select a lender, if the buyer believes he has good credit and his income is documentable as a salary and by tax returns, the licensee might recommend a mortgage banker, instead of a mortgage broker, for all of the following reasons EXCEPT1
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  22. Even if a loan applicant’s current income seems adequate to qualify for a certain loan, the Equal Credit Opportunity Act allows a lender to refuse the loan as a high risk if the applicant’s main source of income is1
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  23. In arriving at a estimate of value, an appraiser is most concerned with1
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  24. A borrower with a very high credit rating likely will:1
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  25. What is (are) the benefit(s) to a retail chain store in a sale-leaseback transaction?1
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  26. William stopped making payments on his mortgage six months ago when his business began experiencing financial problems. What clause in the mortgage allows the bank to call the entire amount due to prepare for foreclosure?1
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  27. Magnolia Bank makes a loan to John Smith. John signs a note for the bank, thanks the loan officer and leaves. The bank has made a(n):1
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  28. A loan program that allows older homeowners to use part of the equity in their property as tax free income without having to sell is known as?1
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  29. With a conventional loan, all of the following are correct except?1
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  30. Which of the following is not true of the FHA (Federal Housing Administration)?1
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  31. What is not true of a VA loan?1
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  32. Hypothecation means?1
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  33. Regarding FHA loans, which of the following is false?1
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  34. Which of the following may not be a requirement of an FHA loan?1
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  35. Complete disclosure of the total cost of credit on a loan is required by?1
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  36. Funds for a VA loan are provided by which of the following?1
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  37. Usury laws prohibit which of the following?1
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  38. A retired Air Force officer purchased a home using his VA loan. Several years later he sold the property and with the lender’s approval the buyer assumed the loan. The buyer defaulted on the loan 6 months later. What is the responsibility of the retired Air Force officer?1
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  39. As a cost of obtaining a real estate loan, one point equals 1 percent of the1
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  40. Usury Law is defines as1
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  41. A borrower with a very high credit rating likely will:1
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  42. A partially amortized mortgage ends with a(n):1
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  43. Typically is required if the homeowner’s down payment is less than 20% of the purchase price.1
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  44. Which of the following is the lender who originated your mortgage may or may not service your loan.1
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  45. A legal document that pledges property to the mortgage company as security for the repayment of the loan. The term is also used to refer to the loan itself.1
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  46. Loan to value is a calculation frequently used by mortgage companies when qualifying borrowers for a mortgage. It is calculated by dividing the mortgage balance by the home’s current market value.1
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  47. It is calculated by dividing the mortgage balance by the home’s current market value.1
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  48. The owner of the loan on a property.1
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  49. A property not considered to be a primary residence that is purchased by an investor in order to generate income, gain profit from reselling or to gain tax benefits.1
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  50. A mortgage where the homeowner pays only the interest on the loan for a specified amount of time.1
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  51. A way of borrowing money against the equity or assets that the homeowner has in the home to pay for things such as home repairs, college education, or other personal uses.1
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  52. Insurance coverage that pays for the loss or damage on a person’s home or property.1
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  53. The legal process by which a property may be sold and the proceeds of the sale applied to the mortgage debt1
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  54. A mortgage loan in which the interest rate remains the same for the life of the loan.1
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  55. A calculation frequently used by mortgage companies when qualifying borrowers for a mortgage or a workout solution to resolve delinquency. It is calculated by comparing how much you pay on your mortgage(s) to your gross monthly income.1
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  56. An Adjustable-Rate Mortgage loan that can be converted into a fixed-rate mortgage during a certain time period.1
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  57. A mortgage loan in which one party pays an initial lump sum in order to reduce the homeowner’s monthly payments.1
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  58. Which of the following best describes a mortgage loan with initially low interest payments, but that requires one large payment due upon maturity (for example, at the end of five or seven years).1
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  59. Which best describes a mortgage loan with an interest rate that can change at any time, usually in response to the market or Treasury Bill rates. These types of loans usually start off with a lower interest rate comparable to a fixed-rate mortgage.1
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  60. I have an adjustable-rate mortgage (ARM) that’s about to reset. Can I refinance through Fannie Mae?1
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  61. A loan to a straw or non-existent buyer, on a non-existent property would be which of the following?1
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  62. Loan applicants used by fraud perpetrators to obtain mortgages, and are used to disguise the true buyer or the true nature of the transaction.1
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  63. All of the following are red flags for mortgage fraud, except;1
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  64. A loan that is paid in 26 half (biweekly) payments each year, resulting in an earlier payoff and lower interest costs over the life of the loan.1
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  65. The final payment of a mortgage loan that is considerably larger than the required periodic payments because the loan amount was not fully amortized.1
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  66. Rate of interest charged on a loan, calculated to take into account up-front loan fees and points. Usually higher than the contract interest rate.1
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  67. A loan in which the principal as well as the interest is payable in monthly or other periodic installments over the term of the loan.1
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  68. The clause in a mortgage stating that the balance of the secured debt becomes immediately due and payable at the mortgagee’s option if the property is sold1
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  69. A mortgage loan in which the interest rate may increase or decrease at specific intervals, following an economic indicator.1
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  70. The annual rate that is charged for borrowing, expressed as a single percentage number that represents the actual yearly cost of funds over the term of a loan1
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  71. An interest rate that moves up and down based on the changes of an underlying interest rate index1
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  72. An interest rate that is set and does not change over a specific period1
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  73. One who owes money; a borrower1
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  74. The charge for the privilege of borrowing money, usually expressed as annual percentage rate.1
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  75. Funds for a VA loan are provided by which of the following?1
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  76. Which of the following may not be a requirement of an FHA loan?1
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  77. What is not true of a VA loan?1
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  78. Which of the following is not true of the FHA (Federal Housing Administration)?1
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  79. With a conventional loan, all of the following are correct except?1
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  80. As a cost of obtaining a real estate loan, one point equals 1 percent of the1
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Property Condition Disclosure

  1. An agent is representing a seller. The seller discloses that hazardous materials were dumped on the land prior to the seller’s purchase of the property. Under CERCLA rules and laws, who is liable for removal of the hazardous materials after the seller sells the land?1
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  2. The presence of radon is detected when a house is inspected. What action should be taken by the prospective purchaser?1
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  3. A listing agent must disclose when a death on the subject property occurred due to:1
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  4. Stambovsky v. Ackley, commonly known as the Ghostbusters ruling,1
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  5. Delivery of disclosure required shall be by personal delivery to the transferee or by mail to the prospective transferee.1
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  6. The failure of any licensee to inform their client of those responsibilities could subject the licensee (salesperson and broker) to censure, suspension, or revocation of their respective real estate licenses.1
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  7. All “Forms” which have been promulgated and approved by the Real Estate Commission for use by licensees in real estate transactions may be found at www.mrec.ms.gov.1
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  8. Which of the following is false?1
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  9. A certified inspector should check around potentially wet areas such as showers, toilets and basements for which hazard?1
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  10. The city acquires a tract of land for a highway. What power will they exercise?1
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  11. Bike trails and dog parks that enhance value are known as?1
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  12. A homeowner’s water well became contaminated by the ground water entering the well. The contamination subsequently lessened the value of the home. This is an example of?1
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  13. Outdated plumbing fixtures are an example of?1
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  14. Flight patterns were changed and now airplanes fly directly over a subdivision. What term best describes the loss in value to this subdivision?1
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  15. All of the following characteristics add to value in a property except?1
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  16. Megan’s Law requires which of the following?1
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  17. Which of the following would not be considered a latent defect?1
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  18. Regarding home inspections, all of the following are correct except?1
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  19. Red flag issues are all of the following except?1
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  20. A buyer hired an agent under an exclusive buyer’s agency agreement. The buyer client wanted to submit an offer on a house that had been stigmatized by a recent murder-suicide. What is the agent’s ethical responsibility to her client?1
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  21. A seller had a fire in their kitchen one year ago. The burned joists were treated and sealed. Will the seller have to disclose these repairs?1
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  22. All of the following could describe a latent defect except?1
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  23. Who is responsible for completing the Property Condition Disclosure Statement?1
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  24. A nonmaterial fact which need not be disclosed is1
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  25. Real Estate Transfer Disclosures are needed for1
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  26. Any person who willfully and negligently does not deliver the needed disclosures shall be liable1
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  27. Delivery to a spouse of a transferee1
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  28. An agent without personal knowledge will not be held responsible for an error when the error was by a1
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  29. Neither the transferor nor any listing or selling agent shall be liable for an error, inaccuracy or omission of information delivered1
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  30. If any disclosure, or any material amendment of any disclosure, required to be made is delivered after the execution of an offer to purchase1
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  31. Delivery of the Real Estate Transfer Disclosure is mandatory in all of the following cases except1
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  32. The transferor shall indicate delivery of the Property Disclosure Statement on1
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  33. In the case of transfer by a real property sales contract, or by a lease together with an option to purchase, or a ground lease coupled with improvements, delivery of the Transfer Disclosure Statement is delivered1
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  34. The transferor of a duplex shall deliver to the prospective transferee the written property disclosure statement1
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  35. Transfer Disclosures are mandatory for all of the following except1
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825